Bald man with no hair?
I am a bald man with hair
I am a man who is clearly not bald: I have lots of hair on my head. A man with no hair is clearly bald. This seems to be true by definition of “bald”.
However, it seems also to be true that if our cue-ball like man had one hair he’d also be bald (think Patrick Stewart). It also seems plausible that if we remove one hair from me I would not be made bald. Yet we can repeat this process, and so it seems that a bald man can have a head of hair, and I can be regarded as bald!
So what went wrong?
Fields to help think this through: vagueness theory, paradox of analysis, fuzzy set theory.
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